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The individual then requests a refund check for the credit balance.
That's how 0% balance transfer arbitrage works. You end up with the cash. It's basically a cash advance, but not executed as such, which is why some credit cards won't allow you to request refund checks for credit balances.
I am assuming that a "balance transfer" is supposed to pay for a balance, like a "home mortgage" is supposed to pay for home.
In both cases, a bank is paying a stated value of the balance/home (stated by the applicant).
Does anyone arbitrage with accurately-stated balances? If so, how do the costs of generating the initial balance affect the ROI?
Thank you.
I do agree that $9,300 could be misleading. If a few 'rich' people carry 200k in credit card debt the average could be skewed much higher than normal person's debt. Sometimes the median helps give us some perspective on that type of skewing.
Nice discussion.
Besides, if not all most don't want to tell how bad their credit is.
The 0% balance transfer info is new to me.. thanks for sharing!